[Par-reg] for Parshat Matot - questions for self study
Menachem Leibtag
tsc at bezeqint.net
Mon Jul 21 15:02:36 EDT 2008
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THE TANACH STUDY CENTER [http://www.tanach.org]
In Memory of Rabbi Abraham Leibtag
Shiurim in Chumash & Navi by Menachem Leibtag
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PARSHAT MATOT / MASEI
PART I - QUESTIONS FOR THE 'SHABBOS TABLE'
WHAT WAS "AL PI HASHEM"?
1. Review 33:1-2, noting how these psukim introduce the
listing of all of Bnei Yisrael's journeys
through the desert.
Then, read once again the first half of 33:2,
noting the phrase "al pi Hashem",
and what it modifies.
In your opinion, does this mean that God instructed
Moshe to write this list, or that each of these journeys
began with God's instruction? What would be the logic
of each interpretation?
In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 9:15-23!
Now, see Ibn Ezra & Ramban on 33:2, noting how and why
each "parshan" offers a different explanation.
THE 'HOLY' WAR AGAINST MIDYAN
1. In your opinion, why do think that specifically
Pinchas was chosen to lead the battle against the
Midyanites, and not Yehoshua - who had earlier led the
battle against Amalek, or Moshe Rabeinu himself - who
had earlier led the battle against Sichon?
Relate your answer to both WHO Bnei Yisrael are
fighting, and WHY Bnei Yisrael are fighting?
[Would you suspect that Moshe Rabeinu's family
relationship with Midyan may have affected God’s
considerations?]
2. Review 31:5-6. Based on these psukim, is it clear
that Pinchas in sent to lead the nation in battle? If
not, why is he being sent? Relate your answer to the
purpose of this battle, and to Devarim 20:1-9.
3. Based on 31:35, we have an approx. population figure
for the female children of Midyan (i.e. 32,000).
Accordingly, approximate how many adult males would
there be in Midyan, and hence – the approximate
potential size of Midyan's army?
Considering that Bnei Yisrael's army had a potential
of 600,000 soldiers (see 26:50-53), what logical reason
is there for God's specific commandment to send only
12,000 men into battle (i.e. one thousand for each
tribe). [Relate this observation to your answers tp the
above questions.]
4. See Ramban on 31:6, in regard to why only 12,000 men
were sent to fight that battle (and not the entire
army).
See also Ibn Ezra on 31:8, and relate his commentary
to our shiur on Parshat Balak.
5. Following the battle, how was the booty split between
the people and the soldiers? Note the percentage of the
booty that was given to God from each group, i.e. both
from Bnei Yisrael and from the soldiers who fought. Can
you explain why?
[In your answer, relate to 31:28 & 31:47!]
What is the logic of these percentages?
6. Note the phrase "chukat ha'torah" in 31:21-24. What
does this phrase mean and what does it relate to? In
your answer, relate to the meaning of these words as
explained in our shiur on Parshat Chukat [re: Parshat
Para/ Bamidbar chapter 19].
In these four psukim, can you identify a
specific set of "chukim" (laws that are set and don't
change), as well as a "torah" - i.e. a procedural type
law?
Note as well the phrase "chukat mishpat" in last
week's Parsha (see Bamidbar 27:11, in reference to
27:6-11). Note there as well what is considered a
"mishpat" (resolving a dispute through the court system)
and what is a "chok" (a set law that doesn't change)!
THE TWO & A HALF TRIBES
1. Based on the opening pasuk of the story of Bnei Gad &
Reuven (see 32:1), attempt to explain why this story
follows immediately after the story of the war against
Midyan (i.e. chapter 31).
[In your answer, be sure to relate to 31:32.]
In your opinion, is there a more 'appropriate'
location (either chronological or thematic) for this
chapter in Sefer Bamdibar? If so, explain where; and
why you think the Torah preferred to record it here
instead.
2. Review 34:16-29. Attempt to give a title to this
parshia, and explain how it relates to the parshiot
which precede it and follow it.
In what way is the parshia similar to the
opening parshia concerning the "meraglim" in the
beginning of Parshat Shlach (see 13:1-18)? In what
manner is it different?
Which tribes are missing from the list in
34:16-29!?
Can you explain why?
[The answer is very simple!]
Next, review those psukim carefully once again,
noting which tribal leaders are NOT referred to as NASI.
Can you explain why? [The answer is very
difficult, and if do find one, please tell me!]
TWELVE TRIBES & SHEVET LEVI
1. Can you explain the logic of Am Yisrael having twelve
independent tribes? Considering that we all serve the
same God, would it not have been better for Am Yisrael
to be simply one united nation, i.e. without the
institution of tribes at all? [Would this not enhance
the unity of Am Yisrael?]
If you do find value to this concept of 12
tribes, attempt to relate it to the overall purpose of
Am Yisrael to become a model nation before all nations.
Can your answer help explain why in Sefer
Bamidbar we find so many topics that relate to the
TWELVE tribes and their leaders? [including Parshat
Matot itself!]
2. What is the purpose of separating the tribe of Levi?
Is their sole responsibility simply to work in the
Mishkan/ Mikdash?
If so, why are their cities scattered among all
twelve tribes (see 35:1-8). If not, what else are they
supposed to do all day?
In your answer, relate to Devarim 17:8-11,
33:8-11 & Bamidbar 3:5-13.
How are the Leviim supposed to support
themselves if they only have cities, but no land to
cultivate?
In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 18:21-32. Read
that section carefully, noting especially 18:21, 18:24,&
18:31.
3. In relation to the above questions, see Rambam -
Mishne Torah, the very end of Hilchot Shmita & Yovel
(13:12-13). In your opinion, what was the Rambam's
source for these halachot?
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PART II - QUESTIONS FOR PREPARATION (for weekly shiur)
1. To the best of recollection, what are the precise
geographical borders of the Land of Israel? Can you
quote a source for your answer?
When God promised the land to Avraham Avinu, did
he tell him the borders at that time?
[Note Breishit 15:18-20 & 17:7-8.]
2. In Parshat Masei (see 34:1-15), the Torah records the
precise borders of Eretz Canaan. In your opinion, is
the phrase "eretz canaan" simply a synonym for "eretz
yisrael" [the Land of Israel]? [If you answered no,
explain what the difference is, and what you based your
answer on.]
Review 34:1-15, taking special note of the eastern
border. Does it include the eastern bank of the Jordan
River [i.e. Transjordan]?
If not, can you explain why?
3. Recall from Parshat Matot (chapter 32) that Moshe had
agreed to grant Transjordan as the official inheritance
of Gad and Reuven (on the condition that they first help
in the conquest of Eretz Canaan). If indeed this area
is outside the above mentioned borders of Eretz Canaan,
why did Moshe allow this decision?
In other words, if Transjordan is part of the
holyland, then it should be within the official borders!
If not, how can it be considered an inheritance of one
of the tribes?
4. Based on the borders described in 34:1-15, is the
Negev part of the Land of Israel? If so, which part of
it? [Would this include areas such as Eilat?]
If the entire Negev is part of Eretz Canaan, why
do Bnei Yisrael pass through that area during their
journey through the desert?
5. Review 32:5-15, noting how Moshe compares Bnei Gad &
Reuven's request to the sin of the "meraglim".
Nonetheless, after their quick explanation, he agrees to
their demands.
In your opinion, what caused Moshe's change in
attitude?
In Bnei Gad & Reuven's response to Moshe, do
they relate in any manner to Moshe's initial accusation?
If so, how?
Why is the offer of Gad & Reuven to serve as the
"chalutz" [front line troops] in the military campaign
to conquer the Land so important to Moshe? In your
answer, relate to Bnei Yisrael's fear of attacking
'walled cities' (see Devarim 1:26-28) and how their
offer could help quell that fear.
6. To the best of your recollection, is there any other
source in Chumash that relates to the actual borders of
the land of Israel? If so, how do those borders compare
to the borders described in Parshat Masei? [See
Breishit 10:19.]
7. Scan thru Sefer Breishit noting the various instances
when God promises the 'Promised Land' to the Avot. [To
save you some time, see Breishit 12:7, 13:14-17, 15:18,
17:7-8, 22:17-18, 26:2-5, 28:3-4, 28:13-14, 35:11-12,
46:1-4, 48:4 & 21. See as well Shmot 23:28-3.]
From these sources, can you pinpoint the precise
borders?
[See also Breishit 10:15-19 in relation
to 17:7-8.]
Do any of these borders contradict one another?
Be sure to relate to Breishit 15:18-20 [Brit
Bein Ha'btarim] in comparison to Breishit 17:7-8 [Brit
Milah].
8. When one says that the Promised Land is HOLY, what
does this imply? Does this statement relate to the realm
of "halacha"?
If so, how? [Bring examples of any "halachot"
that this "kedusha" (holiness) relates to?
Is this concept of "kedusha" found in any other
realm of Judiasm? If so, can you explain how it is
similar (or different)?
9. Are you aware of any laws relating to the "kedusha"
of the Land of Israel that depend on who is sovereign in
the Land?
If so, what are they?
10. Finally, see Rambam Hilchot Trumot 1:1-5. See also
1:26.
As you study this Ramban, note how he provides a
'political' definition of the land of Israel (and not a
geographical one)!
Based on the above questions, can you explain
the reason for this presentation?
Note how the Rambam does relate to "eretz
canaan", as well as to the land the God had promised to
Avraham Avinu. Attempt to explain how and why Rambam
reaches his conclusions concerning the 'expandable'
borders of the land. Does it appear as though he gives
a 'limit' to this potential expansion?
According to this Ramban, what would be the
halachic status today of the land under the sovereignty
of the State of Israel?
PART III - PARSHANUT
THE FIRST PASUK OF PARSHAT MATOT
1. Read the opening pasuk in Parshat Matot (30:2). As
you study this pasuk, make note of whatever problems
that you would assume that the classic commentators
would deal with. List them, but don't look at the
commentators (yet).
2. This opening pasuk (30:2) introduces a set of laws.
How is it different than most other 'introductory
psukim' that we find in Chumash?
3. Before we continue, note that the division of the
Bible according to chapters (a non-jewish tradition)
begins this chapter with the final pasuk of Parshat
Pinchas! [See 30:1]
Note how the division according to "parshiot" (a
jewish tradition) clearly contradicts the chapter
division, as the new 'parshia' begins in 30:2, and not
in 30:1!
According to simple "pshat", which division is
correct?
Can you think of any reason at all why this
chapter should begin in 30:1? How does this pasuk
(30:1) relate to chapter 29?
Use 28:2 (in relation to 30:1) to prove that
Chazal are correct!
In your opinion, could this 'mistake' in the
division of chapters relate to the problem raised in the
above question?
4. This set of laws (of "nedarim" [vows]) is unique for
it was given specifically to the tribal leaders [you
should have noted this in question #1].
In your opinion, were these laws given ONLY to
the tribal leaders (and not to the people)?
If so, why shouldn't the people know these laws?
If not, i.e. the laws were intended for
everyone, why are they first being given to the tribal
leaders?
5. See Rashi on 30:2. How does he answer this question?
There are two stages in Rashi's answer, explain
each stage.
Note how Rashi refers to Shmot 34:31-32.
To appreciate this Rashi, review Shmot 34:27-35, and
attempt to determine which specific mitzvot Moshe
conveyed to Bnei Yisrael when he came down from Har
Sinai with the second luchot. [See commentators there
as well.]
Why are those psukim the key source for Rashi's
interpretation?
6. Now, see Ramban on 30:2. How does he answer this
question?
In what manner is his approach totally different
than Rashi's?
7. Many commentators raise a more basic problem, i.e.
what are the laws of nedarim (vows) doing here (at this
point in Sefer Bamidbar) at all?
Before you study the commentators, attempt to
answer the following questions:
1) In what manner to the laws of nedarim relate to the
preceding set of laws regarding the T'midim u'Musafim
(i.e. chapters 28-29)? Note the concluding psukim of
that that unit!
2) How do the laws of nedarim relate to the topics that
follow, i.e. the war against Midyan & and the two & a
half tribes? [Do any of those stories contain vows?]
See Rashbam on 30:2. How does he answer this
question?
Does he relate to any other questions regarding
30:2?
If so, what is his answer?
8. See Ibn Ezra on 30:2.
How would the Ibn Ezra answer the above
question?
Note that Ibn Ezra's interpretation implies that
these laws of nedarim were FIRST given to Bnei Yisrael
at this time (i.e. during the 40th year in the desert,
after the war against Midyan).!
What is problematic about this opinion, and explain
why others would most probably disagree?
If Ibn Ezra is correct, why aren't these laws
recorded immediately after the story in chapter 32?
How does he deal with this problem in his
commentary?
[See also Chizkuni on 30:2.]
9. See Seforno on 30:2. How does Seforno connect these
laws of nedarim to the mitzvot that were given on Har
Sinai?
Would Seforno agree with Ibn Ezra in regard to
when these laws were first given?
10. Next, carefully study 30:17. Which of the above
opinions does this pausk support?
Which commentary does it appear to contradict?
11. The phrase "zeh ha'davar" is found several other
times in Chumash, in relation to the:
manna - see Shmot 16:16,32;
Mishkan - see Shmot 35:4.
Miluim ceremony - see Vayikra 8:5 ;
Yom Ha'Shmini - see Vayikra 9:6 ;
"shchutei chutz" - see Vayikra 17:2.
[See also Bamidbar 36:6]
Which of these instances is preceded by God
instructing Moshe beforehand (and which cases are not)?
Now, carefully read the opening ten lines of
Ramban's commentary to 30:2. Why do your think that he
compare our pasuk (30:2) specifically to Vayikra 17:2,
and not to the others?
How does he relate to all of the other cases mentioned
above? [As you read this Ramban, note how thorough and
concise his commentary is!]
HOW TO DIVIDE THE LAND?
1. God's command to Bnei Yisrael concerning how to
apportion the land appears to contain an internal
contradiction. On the one hand, it states:
"You shall APPORTION the land among yourselves... with
larger groups INCREASE the share, with smaller groups
REDUCE the share... (see Bamidbar 26:54-55)
This implies that the basis for apportioning the
land was the size of each tribe and/or family.
Yet, the next pasuk seems to imply exactly the
opposite:
"Each portion shall be assigned by LOT, whether for
larger or smaller groups" (see 26:56)
In Parshat Masei, this ambiguous command is
repeated, but in shorter form:
"You shall apportion the land by LOTS, clan by clan:
with LARGER groups increase the share, with SMALLER
groups reduce the share. Wherever the LOT FALLS for
anyone - that shall be his... (see 33:54)
Based on these psukim, how do you think the land
is supposed to be apportioned?
Can you resolve the apparent contradictions?
In your answer, attempt to differentiate between
the geographical area which each tribe is to receive,
and how that area will be apportioned internally by each
tribe according to family clans.
During the time of Yehoshua, how was the land
actually divided according to tribes; based on the
population of each tribe, or based on pre-set parcels of
land? In your answer, relate to Yehoshua chapter 18.
After you arrive at your conclusion (or if you
give up), see Ramban on 26:54 (it's complicated, but
worthwhile if you prepared). [See also Rashi & Sforno.]
[The Ramban is very long, but his basic point can be
understood from the first 10 or 15 lines. This topic is
also discussed at length in Baba Batra 117b.]
b'hatzlacha,
menachem
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