[Par-reg] MATOT/MASEI - questions for self study

Sun Jul 4 04:10:45 EDT 2010

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        THE TANACH STUDY CENTER [http://www.tanach.org]

            In Memory of Rabbi Abraham Leibtag

      Shiurim in Chumash & Navi by Menachem Leibtag

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PARSHAT MATOT / MASEI

PART I - QUESTIONS FOR THE 'SHABBOS TABLE'

WHAT WAS "AL PI HASHEM"?

1. Review 33:1-2, noting how these psukim introduce the
listing of all of Bnei Yisrael's journeys 

through the desert.

      Then, read once again the first half of 33:2, noting
the phrase "al pi Hashem", 

      and what it modifies.  

In your opinion, does this mean that God instructed Moshe
to write this list, or that each of these journeys began
with God's instruction?  What would be the logic of each
interpretation?

           In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 9:15-23!

Now, see Ibn Ezra & Ramban on 33:2, noting how and why
each "parshan" offers a different explanation.

THE 'HOLY' WAR AGAINST MIDYAN

1. In your opinion, why do think that specifically Pinchas
was chosen to lead the battle against the Midyanites, and
not Yehoshua - who had earlier led the battle against
Amalek, or Moshe Rabeinu himself - who had earlier led the
battle against Sichon?

      Relate your answer to both WHO Bnei Yisrael are
fighting, and WHY Bnei Yisrael are fighting?

[Would you suspect that Moshe Rabeinu's family
relationship with Midyan may have affected God's
considerations?]

2.  Review 31:5-6.  Based on these psukim, is it clear
that Pinchas in sent to lead the nation in battle? If not,
why is he being sent? Relate your answer to the purpose of
this battle, and to Devarim 20:1-9.

3.  Based on 31:35, we have an approx. population figure
for the female children of Midyan (i.e. 32,000).
Accordingly, approximate how many adult males would there
be in Midyan, and hence - the approximate potential size
of Midyan's army?  

    Considering that Bnei Yisrael's army had a potential
of 600,000 soldiers (see 26:50-53), what logical reason is
there for God's specific commandment to send only 12,000
men into battle (i.e. one thousand for each tribe).
[Relate this observation to your answers tp the above
questions.]

4. See Ramban on 31:6, in regard to why only 12,000 men
were sent to fight that battle (and not the entire army).

    See also Ibn Ezra on 31:8, and relate his commentary
to our shiur on Parshat Balak.

5. Following the battle, how was the booty split between
the people and the soldiers?  Note the percentage of the
booty that was given to God from each group, i.e. both
from Bnei Yisrael and from the soldiers who fought.  Can
you explain why?

      [In your answer, relate to 31:28 & 31:47!]

      What is the logic of these percentages?

6. Note the phrase "chukat ha'torah" in 31:21-24. What
does this phrase mean and what does it relate to? In your
answer, relate to the meaning of these words as explained
in our shiur on Parshat Chukat [re: Parshat Para/ Bamidbar
chapter 19].

      In these four psukim, can you identify a specific
set of "chukim" (laws that are set and don't change), as
well as a "torah" - i.e. a procedural type law?

      Note as well the phrase "chukat mishpat" in last
week's Parsha (see Bamidbar 27:11, in reference to
27:6-11).  Note there as well what is considered a
"mishpat" (resolving a dispute through the court system)
and what is a "chok" (a set law that doesn't change)!

THE TWO & A HALF TRIBES

1. Based on the opening pasuk of the story of Bnei Gad &
Reuven (see 32:1), attempt to explain why this story
follows immediately after the story of the war against
Midyan (i.e. chapter 31).

      [In your answer, be sure to relate to 31:32.]

      In your opinion, is there a more 'appropriate'
location (either chronological or thematic) for this
chapter in Sefer Bamdibar?  If so, explain where; and why
you think the Torah preferred to record it here instead.

2. Review 34:16-29. Attempt to give a title to this
parshia, and explain how it relates to the parshiot which
precede it and follow it. 

      In what way is the parshia similar to the opening
parshia concerning the "meraglim" in the beginning of
Parshat Shlach (see 13:1-18)? In what manner is it
different?

      Which tribes are missing from the list in 34:16-29!?

            Can you explain why? 

                  [The answer is very simple!]

      Next, review those psukim carefully once again,
noting which tribal leaders are NOT referred to as NASI.

      Can you explain why?  [The answer is very difficult,
and if do find one, please tell me!]

TWELVE TRIBES & SHEVET LEVI

1. Can you explain the logic of Am Yisrael having twelve
independent tribes?  Considering that we all serve the
same God, would it not have been better for Am Yisrael to
be simply one united nation, i.e. without the institution
of tribes at all?  [Would this not enhance the unity of Am
Yisrael?]

      If you do find value to this concept of 12 tribes,
attempt to relate it to the overall purpose of Am Yisrael
to become a model nation before all nations.

      Can your answer help explain why in Sefer Bamidbar
we find so many topics that relate to the TWELVE tribes
and their leaders? [including Parshat Matot itself!]

2. What is the purpose of separating the tribe of Levi? Is
their sole responsibility simply to work in the Mishkan/
Mikdash?

      If so, why are their cities scattered among all
twelve tribes (see 35:1-8).  If not, what else are they
supposed to do all day?

      In your answer, relate to Devarim 17:8-11, 33:8-11 &
Bamidbar 3:5-13.

      How are the Leviim supposed to support themselves if
they only have cities, but no land to cultivate? 

    In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 18:21-32.  Read
that section carefully, noting especially 18:21, 18:24,&
18:31.

3. In relation to the above questions, see Rambam - Mishne
Torah, the very end of Hilchot Shmita & Yovel (13:12-13).
In your opinion, what was the Rambam's source for these
halachot?

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PART II - QUESTIONS FOR PREPARATION (for weekly shiur)

1. To the best of recollection, what are the precise
geographical borders of the Land of Israel?  Can you quote
a source for your answer?

      When God promised the land to Avraham Avinu, did he
tell him the borders at that time? 

      [Note Breishit 15:18-20 & 17:7-8.] 

2. In Parshat Masei (see 34:1-15), the Torah records the
precise borders of Eretz Canaan.  In your opinion, is the
phrase "eretz canaan" simply a synonym for "eretz yisrael"
[the Land of Israel]?  [If you answered no, explain what
the difference is, and what you based your answer on.]

    Review 34:1-15, taking special note of the eastern
border.  Does it include the eastern bank of the Jordan
River [i.e. Transjordan]?

      If not, can you explain why?

3. Recall from Parshat Matot (chapter 32) that Moshe had
agreed to grant Transjordan as the official inheritance of
Gad and Reuven (on the condition that they first help in
the conquest of Eretz Canaan).  If indeed this area is
outside the above mentioned borders of Eretz Canaan, why
did Moshe allow this decision?

      In other words, if Transjordan is part of the
holyland, then it should be within the official borders!
If not, how can it be considered an inheritance of one of
the tribes?

4. Based on the borders described in 34:1-15, is the Negev
part of the Land of Israel?  If so, which part of it?
[Would this include areas such as Eilat?]

      If the entire Negev is part of Eretz Canaan, why do
Bnei Yisrael pass through that area during their journey
through the desert?

5. Review 32:5-15, noting how Moshe compares Bnei Gad &
Reuven's request to the sin of the "meraglim".
Nonetheless, after their quick explanation, he agrees to
their demands. 

      In your opinion, what caused Moshe's change in
attitude? 

      In Bnei Gad & Reuven's response to Moshe, do they
relate in any manner to Moshe's initial accusation? If so,
how?

      Why is the offer of Gad & Reuven to serve as the
"chalutz" [front line troops] in the military campaign to
conquer the Land so important to Moshe?  In your answer,
relate to Bnei Yisrael's fear of attacking 'walled cities'
(see Devarim 1:26-28) and how their offer could help quell
that fear.

6. To the best of your recollection, is there any other
source in Chumash that relates to the actual borders of
the land of Israel?  If so, how do those borders compare
to the borders described in Parshat Masei?  [See Breishit
10:19.]

7. Scan thru Sefer Breishit noting the various instances
when God promises the 'Promised Land' to the Avot.  [To
save you some time, see Breishit 12:7, 13:14-17, 15:18,
17:7-8, 22:17-18, 26:2-5, 28:3-4, 28:13-14, 35:11-12,
46:1-4, 48:4 & 21. See as well Shmot 23:28-3.] 

    From these sources, can you pinpoint the precise
borders?

            [See also Breishit 10:15-19 in relation to
17:7-8.]

      Do any of these borders contradict one another?

      Be sure to relate to Breishit 15:18-20 [Brit Bein
Ha'btarim] in comparison to Breishit 17:7-8 [Brit Milah].

8.  When one says that the Promised Land is HOLY, what
does this imply? Does this statement relate to the realm
of "halacha"?

      If so, how? [Bring examples of any "halachot" that
this "kedusha" (holiness) relates to?

    Is this concept of "kedusha" found in any other realm
of Judiasm?  If so, can you explain how it is similar (or
different)?

9. Are you aware of any laws relating to the "kedusha" of
the Land of Israel that depend on who is sovereign in the
Land? 

      If so, what are they?

10.  Finally, see Rambam Hilchot Trumot 1:1-5. See also
1:26.

      As you study this Ramban, note how he provides a
'political' definition of the land of Israel (and not a
geographical one)!

      Based on the above questions, can you explain the
reason for this presentation?

      Note how the Rambam does relate to "eretz canaan",
as well as to the land the God had promised to Avraham
Avinu.  Attempt to explain how and why Rambam reaches his
conclusions concerning the 'expandable' borders of the
land.  Does it appear as though he gives a 'limit' to this
potential expansion?

      According to this Ramban, what would be the halachic
status today of the land under the sovereignty of the
State of Israel?

PART III - PARSHANUT

THE FIRST PASUK OF PARSHAT MATOT

1. Read the opening pasuk in Parshat Matot (30:2).  As you
study this pasuk, make note of whatever problems that you
would assume that the classic commentators would deal
with.  List them, but don't look at the commentators
(yet). 

2.  This opening pasuk (30:2) introduces a set of laws.
How is it different than most other 'introductory psukim'
that we find in Chumash? 

3.  Before we continue, note that the division of the
Bible according to chapters (a non-jewish tradition)
begins this chapter with the final pasuk of Parshat
Pinchas! [See 30:1]

      Note how the division according to "parshiot" (a
jewish tradition) clearly contradicts the chapter
division, as the new 'parshia' begins in 30:2, and not in
30:1!

      According to simple "pshat", which division is
correct?

      Can you think of any reason at all why this chapter
should begin in 30:1?  How does this pasuk (30:1) relate
to chapter 29?

      Use 28:2 (in relation to 30:1) to prove that Chazal
are correct! 

    In your opinion, could this 'mistake' in the division
of chapters relate to the problem raised in the above
question?

4.  This set of laws (of "nedarim" [vows]) is unique for
it was given specifically to the tribal leaders [you
should have noted this in question #1].

      In your opinion, were these laws given ONLY to the
tribal leaders (and not to the people)?

      If so, why shouldn't the people know these laws?

      If not, i.e. the laws were intended for everyone,
why are they first being given to the tribal leaders?

5. See Rashi on 30:2. How does he answer this question?

      There are two stages in Rashi's answer, explain each
stage.

      Note how Rashi refers to Shmot 34:31-32. 

    To appreciate this Rashi, review Shmot 34:27-35, and
attempt to determine which specific mitzvot Moshe conveyed
to Bnei Yisrael when he came down from Har Sinai with the
second luchot.  [See commentators there as well.]

      Why are those psukim the key source for Rashi's
interpretation?

6. Now, see Ramban on 30:2. How does he answer this
question? 

      In what manner is his approach totally different
than Rashi's?

7.  Many commentators raise a more basic problem, i.e.
what are the laws of nedarim (vows) doing here (at this
point in Sefer Bamidbar) at all?

      Before you study the commentators, attempt to answer
the following questions:

1) In what manner to the laws of nedarim relate to the
preceding set of laws regarding the T'midim u'Musafim
(i.e. chapters 28-29)?  Note the concluding psukim of that
that unit!

2) How do the laws of nedarim relate to the topics that
follow, i.e. the war against Midyan & and the two & a half
tribes? [Do any of those stories contain vows?]

    See Rashbam on 30:2. How does he answer this question?

      Does he relate to any other questions regarding
30:2? 

    If so, what is his answer?

8.  See Ibn Ezra on 30:2.

      How would the Ibn Ezra answer the above question?

      Note that Ibn Ezra's interpretation implies that
these laws of nedarim were FIRST given to Bnei Yisrael at
this time (i.e. during the 40th year in the desert, after
the war against Midyan).!

    What is problematic about this opinion, and explain
why others would most probably disagree?

      If Ibn Ezra is correct, why aren't these laws
recorded immediately after the story in chapter 32?

    How does he deal with this problem in his commentary?

            [See also Chizkuni on 30:2.]

9. See Seforno on 30:2. How does Seforno connect these
laws of nedarim to the mitzvot that were given on Har
Sinai?

      Would Seforno agree with Ibn Ezra in regard to when
these laws were first given?

10.  Next, carefully study 30:17.  Which of the above
opinions does this pausk support?

      Which commentary does it appear to contradict?

11.  The phrase "zeh ha'davar" is found several other
times in Chumash,  in relation to the:

    manna - see Shmot 16:16,32; 

    Mishkan - see Shmot 35:4.

      Miluim ceremony - see Vayikra 8:5 ;

      Yom Ha'Shmini - see Vayikra 9:6 ;

      "shchutei chutz" - see Vayikra 17:2.

                  [See also Bamidbar 36:6]

    Which of these instances is preceded by God
instructing Moshe beforehand (and which cases are not)?

      Now, carefully read the opening ten lines of
Ramban's commentary to 30:2. Why do your think that he
compare our pasuk (30:2) specifically to Vayikra 17:2, and
not to the others?

How does he relate to all of the other cases mentioned
above? [As you read this Ramban, note how thorough and
concise his commentary is!]

HOW TO DIVIDE THE LAND?

1. God's command to Bnei Yisrael concerning how to
apportion the land appears to contain an internal
contradiction. On the one hand, it states:

"You shall APPORTION the land among yourselves... with
larger groups INCREASE the share, with smaller groups
REDUCE the share... (see Bamidbar 26:54-55)

      This implies that the basis for apportioning the
land was  the size of each tribe and/or family. 

    Yet, the next pasuk seems to imply exactly the
opposite:

"Each portion shall be assigned by LOT, whether for larger
or smaller groups"  (see 26:56)

      In Parshat Masei, this ambiguous command is
repeated, but in shorter form:

"You shall apportion the land by LOTS, clan by clan: with
LARGER groups increase the share, with SMALLER groups
reduce the share. Wherever the LOT FALLS for anyone - that
shall be his... (see 33:54)

      Based on these psukim, how do you think the land is
supposed to be apportioned?

      Can you resolve the apparent contradictions? 

      In your answer, attempt to differentiate between the
geographical area which each tribe is to receive, and how
that area will be apportioned internally by each tribe
according to family clans.

      During the time of Yehoshua, how was the land
actually divided according to tribes; based on the
population of each tribe, or based on pre-set parcels of
land?  In your answer, relate to Yehoshua chapter 18.

      After you arrive at your conclusion (or if you give
up), see Ramban on 26:54 (it's complicated, but worthwhile
if you prepared).  [See also Rashi & Sforno.]

[The Ramban is very long, but his basic point can be
understood from the first 10 or 15 lines. This topic is
also discussed at length in Baba Batra 117b.]

                                    b'hatzlacha,

                                    menachem

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