[Par-reg] Matot Masei - questions for self study

[Menachem Leibtag]

*************************************************************
        THE TANACH STUDY CENTER [http://www.tanach.org]
In Memory of Rabbi Abraham Leibtag
Shiurim in Chumash & Navi by Menachem Leibtag
*************************************************************

PARSHAT MATOT / MASEI

PART I - QUESTIONS FOR THE 'SHABBOS TABLE'

WHAT WAS "AL PI HASHEM"?
1. Review 33:1-2, noting how these psukim introduce the listing of all of
Bnei Yisrael's journeys
through the desert.
Then, read once again the first half of 33:2, noting the phrase "al pi
Hashem",
and what it modifies.
In your opinion, does this mean that God instructed Moshe to write this
list, or that each of these journeys began with God's instruction?  What
would be the logic of each interpretation?
           In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 9:15-23!
Now, see Ibn Ezra & Ramban on 33:2, noting how and why each "parshan"
offers a different explanation.


THE 'HOLY' WAR AGAINST MIDYAN
1. In your opinion, why do think that specifically Pinchas was chosen to
lead the battle against the Midyanites, and not Yehoshua - who had earlier
led the battle against Amalek, or Moshe Rabeinu himself - who had earlier
led the battle against Sichon?
Relate your answer to both WHO Bnei Yisrael are fighting, and WHY Bnei
Yisrael are fighting?
[Would you suspect that Moshe Rabeinu's family relationship with Midyan may
have affected God’s considerations?]

2.  Review 31:5-6.  Based on these psukim, is it clear that Pinchas in sent
to lead the nation in battle? If not, why is he being sent? Relate your
answer to the purpose of this battle, and to Devarim 20:1-9.

3.  Based on 31:35, we have an approx. population figure for the female
children of Midyan (i.e. 32,000).  Accordingly, approximate how many adult
males would there be in Midyan, and hence – the approximate potential size
of Midyan's army?
    Considering that Bnei Yisrael's army had a potential of 600,000
soldiers (see 26:50-53), what logical reason is there for God's specific
commandment to send only 12,000 men into battle (i.e. one thousand for each
tribe).  [Relate this observation to your answers tp the above questions.]

4. See Ramban on 31:6, in regard to why only 12,000 men were sent to fight
that battle (and not the entire army).
    See also Ibn Ezra on 31:8, and relate his commentary to our shiur on
Parshat Balak.

5. Following the battle, how was the booty split between the people and the
soldiers?  Note the percentage of the booty that was given to God from each
group, i.e. both from Bnei Yisrael and from the soldiers who fought.  Can
you explain why?
[In your answer, relate to 31:28 & 31:47!]
What is the logic of these percentages?

6. Note the phrase "chukat ha'torah" in 31:21-24. What does this phrase
mean and what does it relate to? In your answer, relate to the meaning of
these words as explained in our shiur on Parshat Chukat [re: Parshat Para/
Bamidbar chapter 19].
In these four psukim, can you identify a specific set of "chukim" (laws
that are set and don't change), as well as a "torah" - i.e. a procedural
type law?
Note as well the phrase "chukat mishpat" in last week's Parsha (see
Bamidbar 27:11, in reference to 27:6-11).  Note there as well what is
considered a "mishpat" (resolving a dispute through the court system) and
what is a "chok" (a set law that doesn't change)!

THE TWO & A HALF TRIBES
1. Based on the opening pasuk of the story of Bnei Gad & Reuven (see 32:1),
attempt to explain why this story follows immediately after the story of
the war against Midyan (i.e. chapter 31).
[In your answer, be sure to relate to 31:32.]
In your opinion, is there a more 'appropriate' location (either
chronological or thematic) for this chapter in Sefer Bamdibar?  If so,
explain where; and why you think the Torah preferred to record it here
instead.

2. Review 34:16-29. Attempt to give a title to this parshia, and explain
how it relates to the parshiot which precede it and follow it.
In what way is the parshia similar to the opening parshia concerning the
"meraglim" in the beginning of Parshat Shlach (see 13:1-18)? In what manner
is it different?
Which tribes are missing from the list in 34:16-29!?
Can you explain why?
[The answer is very simple!]
Next, review those psukim carefully once again, noting which tribal leaders
are NOT referred to as NASI.
Can you explain why?  [The answer is very difficult, and if do find one,
please tell me!]

TWELVE TRIBES & SHEVET LEVI
1. Can you explain the logic of Am Yisrael having twelve independent
tribes?  Considering that we all serve the same God, would it not have been
better for Am Yisrael to be simply one united nation, i.e. without the
institution of tribes at all?  [Would this not enhance the unity of Am
Yisrael?]
If you do find value to this concept of 12 tribes, attempt to relate it to
the overall purpose of Am Yisrael to become a model nation before all
nations.
Can your answer help explain why in Sefer Bamidbar we find so many topics
that relate to the TWELVE tribes and their leaders? [including Parshat
Matot itself!]

2. What is the purpose of separating the tribe of Levi? Is their sole
responsibility simply to work in the Mishkan/ Mikdash?
If so, why are their cities scattered among all twelve tribes (see
35:1-8).  If not, what else are they supposed to do all day?
In your answer, relate to Devarim 17:8-11, 33:8-11 & Bamidbar 3:5-13.
How are the Leviim supposed to support themselves if they only have cities,
but no land to cultivate?
    In your answer, relate to Bamidbar 18:21-32.  Read that section
carefully, noting especially 18:21, 18:24,& 18:31.

3. In relation to the above questions, see Rambam - Mishne Torah, the very
end of Hilchot Shmita & Yovel (13:12-13). In your opinion, what was the
Rambam's source for these halachot?
======

PART II - QUESTIONS FOR PREPARATION (for weekly shiur)

1. To the best of recollection, what are the precise geographical borders
of the Land of Israel?  Can you quote a source for your answer?
When God promised the land to Avraham Avinu, did he tell him the borders at
that time?
[Note Breishit 15:18-20 & 17:7-8.]

2. In Parshat Masei (see 34:1-15), the Torah records the precise borders of
Eretz Canaan.  In your opinion, is the phrase "eretz canaan" simply a
synonym for "eretz yisrael" [the Land of Israel]?  [If you answered no,
explain what the difference is, and what you based your answer on.]
    Review 34:1-15, taking special note of the eastern border.  Does it
include the eastern bank of the Jordan River [i.e. Transjordan]?
If not, can you explain why?

3. Recall from Parshat Matot (chapter 32) that Moshe had agreed to grant
Transjordan as the official inheritance of Gad and Reuven (on the condition
that they first help in the conquest of Eretz Canaan).  If indeed this area
is outside the above mentioned borders of Eretz Canaan, why did Moshe allow
this decision?
In other words, if Transjordan is part of the holyland, then it should be
within the official borders! If not, how can it be considered an
inheritance of one of the tribes?

4. Based on the borders described in 34:1-15, is the Negev part of the Land
of Israel?  If so, which part of it? [Would this include areas such as
Eilat?]
If the entire Negev is part of Eretz Canaan, why do Bnei Yisrael pass
through that area during their journey through the desert?

5. Review 32:5-15, noting how Moshe compares Bnei Gad & Reuven's request to
the sin of the "meraglim". Nonetheless, after their quick explanation, he
agrees to their demands.
In your opinion, what caused Moshe's change in attitude?
In Bnei Gad & Reuven's response to Moshe, do they relate in any manner to
Moshe's initial accusation? If so, how?
Why is the offer of Gad & Reuven to serve as the "chalutz" [front line
troops] in the military campaign to conquer the Land so important to
Moshe?  In your answer, relate to Bnei Yisrael's fear of attacking 'walled
cities' (see Devarim 1:26-28) and how their offer could help quell that
fear.

6. To the best of your recollection, is there any other source in Chumash
that relates to the actual borders of the land of Israel?  If so, how do
those borders compare to the borders described in Parshat Masei?  [See
Breishit 10:19.]

7. Scan thru Sefer Breishit noting the various instances when God promises
the 'Promised Land' to the Avot.  [To save you some time, see Breishit
12:7, 13:14-17, 15:18, 17:7-8, 22:17-18, 26:2-5, 28:3-4, 28:13-14,
35:11-12, 46:1-4, 48:4 & 21. See as well Shmot 23:28-3.]
    From these sources, can you pinpoint the precise borders?
[See also Breishit 10:15-19 in relation to 17:7-8.]

Do any of these borders contradict one another?
Be sure to relate to Breishit 15:18-20 [Brit Bein Ha'btarim] in comparison
to Breishit 17:7-8 [Brit Milah].

8.  When one says that the Promised Land is HOLY, what does this imply?
Does this statement relate to the realm of "halacha"?
If so, how? [Bring examples of any "halachot" that this "kedusha"
(holiness) relates to?
    Is this concept of "kedusha" found in any other realm of Judiasm?  If
so, can you explain how it is similar (or different)?

9. Are you aware of any laws relating to the "kedusha" of the Land of
Israel that depend on who is sovereign in the Land?
If so, what are they?

10.  Finally, see Rambam Hilchot Trumot 1:1-5. See also 1:26.
As you study this Ramban, note how he provides a 'political' definition of
the land of Israel (and not a geographical one)!
Based on the above questions, can you explain the reason for this
presentation?
Note how the Rambam does relate to "eretz canaan", as well as to the land
the God had promised to Avraham Avinu.  Attempt to explain how and why
Rambam reaches his conclusions concerning the 'expandable' borders of the
land.  Does it appear as though he gives a 'limit' to this potential
expansion?
According to this Ramban, what would be the halachic status today of the
land under the sovereignty of the State of Israel?

PART III - PARSHANUT

THE FIRST PASUK OF PARSHAT MATOT
1. Read the opening pasuk in Parshat Matot (30:2).  As you study this
pasuk, make note of whatever problems that you would assume that the
classic commentators would deal with.  List them, but don't look at the
commentators (yet).

2.  This opening pasuk (30:2) introduces a set of laws.  How is it
different than most other 'introductory psukim' that we find in Chumash?

3.  Before we continue, note that the division of the Bible according to
chapters (a non-jewish tradition) begins this chapter with the final pasuk
of Parshat Pinchas! [See 30:1]
Note how the division according to "parshiot" (a jewish tradition) clearly
contradicts the chapter division, as the new 'parshia' begins in 30:2, and
not in 30:1!
According to simple "pshat", which division is correct?
Can you think of any reason at all why this chapter should begin in 30:1?
How does this pasuk (30:1) relate to chapter 29?
Use 28:2 (in relation to 30:1) to prove that Chazal are correct!
    In your opinion, could this 'mistake' in the division of chapters
relate to the problem raised in the above question?

4.  This set of laws (of "nedarim" [vows]) is unique for it was given
specifically to the tribal leaders [you should have noted this in question
#1].
In your opinion, were these laws given ONLY to the tribal leaders (and not
to the people)?
If so, why shouldn't the people know these laws?
If not, i.e. the laws were intended for everyone, why are they first being
given to the tribal leaders?
5. See Rashi on 30:2. How does he answer this question?
There are two stages in Rashi's answer, explain each stage.
Note how Rashi refers to Shmot 34:31-32.
    To appreciate this Rashi, review Shmot 34:27-35, and attempt to
determine which specific mitzvot Moshe conveyed to Bnei Yisrael when he
came down from Har Sinai with the second luchot.  [See commentators there
as well.]
Why are those psukim the key source for Rashi's interpretation?

6. Now, see Ramban on 30:2. How does he answer this question?
In what manner is his approach totally different than Rashi's?

7.  Many commentators raise a more basic problem, i.e. what are the laws of
nedarim (vows) doing here (at this point in Sefer Bamidbar) at all?
Before you study the commentators, attempt to answer the following
questions:
1) In what manner to the laws of nedarim relate to the preceding set of
laws regarding the T'midim u'Musafim (i.e. chapters 28-29)?  Note the
concluding psukim of that that unit!

2) How do the laws of nedarim relate to the topics that follow, i.e. the
war against Midyan & and the two & a half tribes? [Do any of those stories
contain vows?]

    See Rashbam on 30:2. How does he answer this question?
Does he relate to any other questions regarding 30:2?
    If so, what is his answer?

8.  See Ibn Ezra on 30:2.
How would the Ibn Ezra answer the above question?
Note that Ibn Ezra's interpretation implies that these laws of nedarim were
FIRST given to Bnei Yisrael at this time (i.e. during the 40th year in the
desert, after the war against Midyan).!
    What is problematic about this opinion, and explain why others would
most probably disagree?
If Ibn Ezra is correct, why aren't these laws recorded immediately after
the story in chapter 32?
    How does he deal with this problem in his commentary?
[See also Chizkuni on 30:2.]

9. See Seforno on 30:2. How does Seforno connect these laws of nedarim to
the mitzvot that were given on Har Sinai?
Would Seforno agree with Ibn Ezra in regard to when these laws were first
given?

10.  Next, carefully study 30:17.  Which of the above opinions does this
pausk support?
Which commentary does it appear to contradict?

11.  The phrase "zeh ha'davar" is found several other times in Chumash,  in
relation to the:
    manna - see Shmot 16:16,32;
    Mishkan - see Shmot 35:4.
Miluim ceremony - see Vayikra 8:5 ;
Yom Ha'Shmini - see Vayikra 9:6 ;
"shchutei chutz" - see Vayikra 17:2.
[See also Bamidbar 36:6]

    Which of these instances is preceded by God instructing Moshe
beforehand (and which cases are not)?
Now, carefully read the opening ten lines of Ramban's commentary to 30:2.
Why do your think that he compare our pasuk (30:2) specifically to Vayikra
17:2, and not to the others?
How does he relate to all of the other cases mentioned above? [As you read
this Ramban, note how thorough and concise his commentary is!]


HOW TO DIVIDE THE LAND?
1. God's command to Bnei Yisrael concerning how to apportion the land
appears to contain an internal contradiction. On the one hand, it states:
"You shall APPORTION the land among yourselves... with larger groups
INCREASE the share, with smaller groups REDUCE the share... (see Bamidbar
26:54-55)

This implies that the basis for apportioning the land was  the size of each
tribe and/or family.
    Yet, the next pasuk seems to imply exactly the opposite:
"Each portion shall be assigned by LOT, whether for larger or smaller
groups"  (see 26:56)

In Parshat Masei, this ambiguous command is repeated, but in shorter form:
"You shall apportion the land by LOTS, clan by clan: with LARGER groups
increase the share, with SMALLER groups reduce the share. Wherever the LOT
FALLS for anyone - that shall be his... (see 33:54)

Based on these psukim, how do you think the land is supposed to be
apportioned?
Can you resolve the apparent contradictions?
In your answer, attempt to differentiate between the geographical area
which each tribe is to receive, and how that area will be apportioned
internally by each tribe according to family clans.
During the time of Yehoshua, how was the land actually divided according to
tribes; based on the population of each tribe, or based on pre-set parcels
of land?  In your answer, relate to Yehoshua chapter 18.

After you arrive at your conclusion (or if you give up), see Ramban on
26:54 (it's complicated, but worthwhile if you prepared).  [See also Rashi
& Sforno.]
[The Ramban is very long, but his basic point can be understood from the
first 10 or 15 lines. This topic is also discussed at length in Baba Batra
117b.]

b'hatzlacha,
menachem
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